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Post by FilmFlaneur on Jul 23, 2023 12:59:35 GMT
No man has or can see God the Father IN ALL HIS FULL GLORY. Throughout the OT God transformed himself and appeared to people through images, visions, theophanies, glimpses etc. But no can see Him in all his full glory and live. No contradiction. But,” he said, “you cannot see my face, for no one may see me and live.” Exodus 30:22 No one has ever seen God; but if we love one another, God lives in us and his love is made complete in us. 1 John 4:12 God, the blessed and only Ruler, the King of kings and Lord of lords, 16 who alone is immortal and who lives in unapproachable light, whom no one has seen or can see. 1 Timothy 6:14-16 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. In the Good News Translation of the Bible the text reads: No one has ever seen God. John 1:18 I am looking hard at these verses but "In his/my full Glory" appears to be entirely absent as a qualifier. We even have Exodus 33: 18 Then Moses said, “Now, please show me your glory ” The Lord answered, “I will cause all my goodness to pass in front of you,..." Glory is a word used in the Bible to describe God's eternal splendour and majesty. But perhaps you have a special Bible with extra verses? Where did you get your claim from? Remember what I said about creative exegesis? I do. Psalm 145:17 The Lord is righteous in all his ways and kind in all his works.Psalm 145:8-10 The Lord is gracious and merciful, slow to anger and abounding in steadfast love. The Lord is good to all, and his mercy is over all that he has made. Joel 2:13 And rend your hearts and not your garments. Return to the Lord your God, for he is gracious and merciful, slow to anger, and abounding in steadfast love; and he relents over disaster.
but, er I make peace, and create evil: I the Lord do all these things” (Isaiah 45:6–7, KJV 1900). The apologists' favoured reading of evil here is 'misfortune' 'disaster' or 'calamity', watering down matters and meaning just natural [earthquakes, disease etc] not moral evil which is commonly down to the misuse of free will. However one notes that the text does actually not make this distinction, while in the matter of free will God has a surprising record of 'hardening hearts'). One notes too that the literal opposite of 'peace' is war, which is indeed a matter of free will being misused. So how come God admits and takes the fall for it? Another excuse is that God speaks of His creation of evil specifically in the context of a special time and place. But He does not say "I create evil.. just for a bit" while the full list of that which He claims responsibility for (light darkness and peace) are clearly not temporary matters. And the supposed all-good deity still admits making it doesn't He? One notes too in connection with this 1 Timothy 4:4-5's : For everything created by God is good, and nothing is to be rejected if it is received with thanksgiving, for it is made holy by the word of God and prayer. So it appears that calamity is, er, good which is bit of contradiction. Even childhood bone cancers presumably. Leprosy (which Jesus then felt obliged to cure, at least once) Or the tidal waves that kill the righteous along with the rest of us.
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djorno
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Post by djorno on Jul 23, 2023 14:33:41 GMT
No man has or can see God the Father IN ALL HIS FULL GLORY. Throughout the OT God transformed himself and appeared to people through images, visions, theophanies, glimpses etc. But no can see Him in all his full glory and live. No contradiction. But,” he said, “you cannot see my face, for no one may see me and live.” Exodus 30:22 No one has ever seen God; but if we love one another, God lives in us and his love is made complete in us. 1 John 4:12 God, the blessed and only Ruler, the King of kings and Lord of lords, 16 who alone is immortal and who lives in unapproachable light, whom no one has seen or can see. 1 Timothy 6:14-16 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. In the Good News Translation of the Bible the text reads: No one has ever seen God. John 1:18 I am looking hard at these verses but "In his/my full Glory" appears to be entirely absent as a qualifier. We even have Exodus 33: It’s simple, God is spirit. God doesn’t have a literal face, those descriptions of God having a face, arms, legs etc are simply anthropomorphisms to help us understand Him in human terms. As physical humans we cannot see a spirit being that is invisible to the physical eye. Also we cannot see God and live because we’re too sinful, whereas he is infinitely holy and glorious. Holiness and sin do not mix. No contradiction. If you continue reading the passage you learn that Moses only saw God’s “back” or rather the cloud representing God, he never saw him in his full glory. God only appeared to humans in physical form, not in his full glory. When the ancient Hebrews wrote about “seeing God’s face” they were using a metaphor for “being in the presence of God”. It wasn’t to be taken literally. Remember what I said about the Bible being understood in textual and cultural context? I do. The original Hebrew is “ra” which can mean calamity, disaster, afflictions, and adversity. So it makes sense when taking scripture holistically that it’s referring to natural disasters which are a result of a fallen world. No contradiction.
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Post by FilmFlaneur on Jul 23, 2023 15:51:09 GMT
It’s simple, God is spirit. God doesn’t have a literal face, those descriptions of God having a face, arms, legs etc are simply anthropomorphisms to help us understand Him in human terms. As physical humans we cannot see a spirit being that is invisible to the physical eye. Also we cannot see God and live because we’re too sinful, whereas he is infinitely holy and glorious. Holiness and sin do not mix. If God does not really have a face, then one wonders why bother going to the trouble telling Moses that He won't show it. Exodus "21 “There is a place near me where you may stand on a rock. 22 When my glory passes that place, I will put you in a large ·crack in the rock and cover you with my hand until I have passed by. 23 Then I will ·take away [remove] my hand, and you will see my back. But my face must not be seen.” In any normal reading does that, with the concrete detail such as the cleft in a rock etc, really seem intended as metaphorical? It must also be noted that other Christian sites do take the Moses encounter literally: Ultimately though whether 'face' is to be interpreted literally or metaphorically is not really the issue. It lies in the fact that in some places in scripture whether a "glory" or anthropomorphic attribute, we are told God's "face" cannot be seen, at other points it is described as being so. That's the contradiction and you haven't addressed that. A further thought is this: if we are to discard any literal notions of anthropomorphism when reading scripture as just educational aids then, to be logically consistent, we ought to discard notions of your deity as supposedly possessing those very human characteristics of, say, love, anger, jealousy, repentance and mercy. Er... but didn't you just say above God can't be seen at all? It appears not all contradictions are to be found in the Bible lol Yes, and the unfortunate context here is that you are saying two different things at once, while scripture's contradiction is plain and clear. QED. You need to go back and read again, to where I already said apologists equate calamity conveniently just with Natural Evil (and explained the compromises that involves.) But God still says he creates calamities, which is the point; a contradiction especially when Joel for instance clearly says He relents over the same. One presumes that God would not relent over that which He was not responsible, while it is hard to reconcile an all-good (or is that too anthropomorphic?) god with one who deliberately creates disaster and the resultant misery. But I can see why you do not wish to address the point I made. Next up: was man is created before other animals or was man God's final creation? Genesis' two creation accounts imply both.
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Post by Eva Yojimbo on Jul 24, 2023 2:55:02 GMT
Eliezer Yudkowsky once put this point very well: "Intrinsically, there’s nothing small about the ethical problem with slaughtering thousands of innocent first-born male children to convince an unelected Pharaoh to release slaves who logically could have been teleported out of the country. It should be more glaring than the comparatively trivial scientific error of saying that grasshoppers have four legs. And yet, if you say the Earth is flat, people will look at you like you’re crazy. But if you say the Bible is your source of ethics, women will not slap you. Most people’s concept of rationality is determined by what they think they can get away with; they think they can get away with endorsing Bible ethics; and so it only requires a manageable effort of self-deception for them to overlook the Bible’s moral problems. Everyone has agreed not to notice the elephant in the living room, and this state of affairs can sustain itself for a time." www.lesswrong.com/posts/fAuWLS7RKWD2npBFR/religion-s-claim-to-be-non-disprovableThe most common answer by biblical apologists to the cruelties of scripture is that what ever God says, goes, and so are inherently justified, especially as the end justifies the means. But it does leave them looking morally very uncomfortable when matters include genocide and rape. The question of whether goodness is loved by the gods because it's good or whether goodness is good because it's loved by the gods goes all the way back to Plato and has a name called the Euthyphro Dilemma. There are actually a lot of theists who have historically been on both sides, with the side you describe being called Divine Command Theory and, as you suggest, it does lead to the awkwardness of theists having to answer to why God things that to us intuitively seem morally abominable. Augistine, Anselm, and Aquinas all thought it was a false dilemma, but I think there attempts at demonstrating this run into just as many problems.
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Post by FilmFlaneur on Jul 24, 2023 19:42:40 GMT
The most common answer by biblical apologists to the cruelties of scripture is that what ever God says, goes, and so are inherently justified, especially as the end justifies the means. But it does leave them looking morally very uncomfortable when matters include genocide and rape. The question of whether goodness is loved by the gods because it's good or whether goodness is good because it's loved by the gods goes all the way back to Plato and has a name called the Euthyphro Dilemma. There are actually a lot of theists who have historically been on both sides, with the side you describe being called Divine Command Theory and, as you suggest, it does lead to the awkwardness of theists having to answer to why God things that to us intuitively seem morally abominable. Augistine, Anselm, and Aquinas all thought it was a false dilemma, but I think there attempts at demonstrating this run into just as many problems. A related issue is when one asserts that objective justice or morality originates from the deity. Since what is objective must be necessarily free from the preferences of personality, the Bible's anthropomorphic verses, including those specifying that God is by turn jealous, loving, angry, merciful etc and with His "chosen peoples" make any claim to objectivity harder to sustain.
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Post by Eva Yojimbo on Jul 25, 2023 2:44:25 GMT
The question of whether goodness is loved by the gods because it's good or whether goodness is good because it's loved by the gods goes all the way back to Plato and has a name called the Euthyphro Dilemma. There are actually a lot of theists who have historically been on both sides, with the side you describe being called Divine Command Theory and, as you suggest, it does lead to the awkwardness of theists having to answer to why God things that to us intuitively seem morally abominable. Augistine, Anselm, and Aquinas all thought it was a false dilemma, but I think there attempts at demonstrating this run into just as many problems. A related issue is when one asserts that objective justice or morality originates from the deity. Since what is objective must be necessarily free from the preferences of personality, the Bible's anthropomorphic verses, including those specifying that God is by turn jealous, loving, angry, merciful etc and with His "chosen peoples" make any claim to objectivity harder to sustain. I go even more technical in arguing that if the words "objective" and "subjective" are to make any sense (and not be conflated with "collective" Vs "individual") they should refer to things that exist external to minds Vs things that only exist within minds. If morality originates from the mind of a deity it's clearly subjective by that definition; it's just relative to a deity's subjectivity. For morality to be objective it must originate somewhere in the external world and not within any mind.
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The Lost One
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Post by The Lost One on Aug 2, 2023 15:19:38 GMT
A related issue is when one asserts that objective justice or morality originates from the deity. Since what is objective must be necessarily free from the preferences of personality, the Bible's anthropomorphic verses, including those specifying that God is by turn jealous, loving, angry, merciful etc and with His "chosen peoples" make any claim to objectivity harder to sustain. I go even more technical in arguing that if the words "objective" and "subjective" are to make any sense (and not be conflated with "collective" Vs "individual") they should refer to things that exist external to minds Vs things that only exist within minds. If morality originates from the mind of a deity it's clearly subjective by that definition; it's just relative to a deity's subjectivity. For morality to be objective it must originate somewhere in the external world and not within any mind. OMG, Eva's back! I suppose if one defines morality as God's will, then for people that is an objective standard - it doesn't matter what disagreements people have about what's right, there is only one moral truth. That truth may be then subjective for God, but objective for everyone else.
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The Lost One
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@lostkiera
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Post by The Lost One on Aug 2, 2023 15:26:12 GMT
Eliezer Yudkowsky once put this point very well: "Intrinsically, there’s nothing small about the ethical problem with slaughtering thousands of innocent first-born male children to convince an unelected Pharaoh to release slaves who logically could have been teleported out of the country. Actually, God slaughtered them to demonstrate his power to the Egyptians. The whole 'let my people go' thing was a ruse as God makes clear to Moses and Aaron in private. In fact, in order to keep escalating the plagues in order to show off his power, God was deliberately hardening Pharaoh's heart so that he would remain stubborn after each plague. So, it's an even bigger ethical problem with Biblical ethics than Yudkowsky realises.
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Post by Eva Yojimbo on Aug 7, 2023 14:53:50 GMT
I go even more technical in arguing that if the words "objective" and "subjective" are to make any sense (and not be conflated with "collective" Vs "individual") they should refer to things that exist external to minds Vs things that only exist within minds. If morality originates from the mind of a deity it's clearly subjective by that definition; it's just relative to a deity's subjectivity. For morality to be objective it must originate somewhere in the external world and not within any mind. OMG, Eva's back! I suppose if one defines morality as God's will, then for people that is an objective standard - it doesn't matter what disagreements people have about what's right, there is only one moral truth. That truth may be then subjective for God, but objective for everyone else. Probably just temporarily. Spending most of my free time reading/writing these days and mostly keep my social interaction to a handful of friends/family. This place seems pretty dead anymore anyway. I think internet forums have sadly been sacrificed to the gods of the major social media platforms, most of which aren't conducive to this kind of in-depth discussion, hence my lack of interest in them. Anyway, my post was just noting that it's really a definitional thing. To me, subjective/objective should be used to denote the differences between things that are dependent upon minds or independent from minds. If morality derives from God's mind it's still subjective under that definition. It's not mind-independent the way rocks and trees are. The claim that there is only one moral truth (or that moral truth exists) is simply moral realism, not necessarily objectivity (though there's an argument to be had on the reality of non-objective things). Further, someone's subjectivity isn't objective to everyone else; that's not how that works. We can infer someone's subjective states through objective means--brains, language, actions--but the objective means are still distinct from the subjective states. We also don't even have that with God because we don't have a being we can interact with as an object at all; what we have are people trying to infer what the subjectivity of that mind is by observing the objectivity of reality. However, even if we eliminated all of these difficulties and agreed that we had access to God's mind/subjectivity and knew what his standards for morality was, we're still left in the position of, one, having morality be relative to a mind's subjectivity and, two, having to agree on using that subjectivity as the standard we should use. The latter is not trivial. Consider the hypothetical where a god exists but is very different than the supposedly-benevolent god of Judeo-Christianity and this God deems that what's moral is actually what causes the most pain and suffering to others. Are we then obligated to accept this god's morality, even if that god created the universe, life, etc., as the ultimate, "objective" standard for morality? Or can we simply reject that morality and stick to our own? Now, what fundamentally changes is if the god IS the supposedly-benevolent God of Judeo-Christianity? There's a few paths you can take here: you can claim that both the benevolent and malevolent gods have THE "objectively true" morality and we are wrong for rejecting it/right for accepting it in either case; or you can claim (as I do) that morality derives from our innate-but-conflicted feelings about how to achieve our desires within a social context where we also have to take others' desires into consideration and thus we aren't obligated to treat any deity's morality as "the objectively right" morality; or you can try to concoct some argument why we should accept the morality of one God but not the other and how our ability to do that doesn't violate the entire notion of "objective" morality. Eliezer Yudkowsky once put this point very well: "Intrinsically, there’s nothing small about the ethical problem with slaughtering thousands of innocent first-born male children to convince an unelected Pharaoh to release slaves who logically could have been teleported out of the country. Actually, God slaughtered them to demonstrate his power to the Egyptians. The whole 'let my people go' thing was a ruse as God makes clear to Moses and Aaron in private. In fact, in order to keep escalating the plagues in order to show off his power, God was deliberately hardening Pharaoh's heart so that he would remain stubborn after each plague. So, it's an even bigger ethical problem with Biblical ethics than Yudkowsky realises. Good point!
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Post by Rodney Farber on Aug 12, 2023 2:31:10 GMT
You say "context". I say, "Cherry Pick". Cherry picking is an essential trait of a good Christian. You say “cherry pick”. I say, you’re the one cherry picking., You realize you’re exactly only proving my point about textual context and/or historical context? Ezekiel 4 is set during the siege of Jerusalem. The Babylonian armies had surrounded the city. In the ancient near east they used to use dried animal dung as fuel but since the inhabitants would have killed all the animals in the city for meat, there would’ve been very little animal dung left to use. God tells Ezekiel to use human dung, as animal dung was scarce given circumstances. Ezekiel complains to God, as he’d kept to the strict ceremonial dietary laws all his life and had never eaten unclean food. So God gave him dispensation to use cow dung instead. Not sure why you see a contradiction. Do you live in the ancient near east?
Why should Ezekiel need to complain. If God is so all F***ing smart, (S)he would already know what Ezekiel would say so God should skip the human excrement speech and go right for the cow dung. Come to think of it, why didn't God tell Ezekiel to use oil for cooking. After all, God planted the stuff all over the middle-east. Rather than tell everyone what the curtains in his tabernacle should look like (Exodus 26), why not teach them how to drill for oil.
As for "Do you live in ancient the near east"", God knows all, including the future. I'm sure there are bakers in present-day near east that bake bread. I doubt that any of them use cow dung for cooking, even though God directed it. Although God allegedly knows EVERYTHING, he somehow never mentions oil, of kangaroos, or penguins,
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Post by Rodney Farber on Aug 27, 2023 1:48:10 GMT
"So what if the Bible accurately features historical places. New York City is depicted in the Spider-man movies, doesn’t mean Spider-Man is real!" We know Spider-man was written as a work of fiction. The people that were writing about Jesus wrote about him as if was a historical figure. Every early Christian, plus the likes of Tacitus, Pliny the younger, Lucian, Josephus etc, they all wrote about him as if he was a historical person. Secondly, during the time of Jesus, the disciples ie the first Christians were willing to die for Jesus and the truth of Christianity. You’re not gonna get people today willing to die for the truth of Spider-man. Genesis 1:1 "In the beginning, God created the heaven and the earth." How could that possibly be historic? Nobody was there to witness it. Nobody wrote it down. The only feasible explanation is that someone just assumed "God did it". In the first sentence of the Bible, I’ve debunked your claim that the Bible is historic. Or is that one of the places that you cherry-pick with the word, "context"? Google the subjunctive phrase, "as if", which you used twice in your response. •"as would be the case if" – to rephrase your words, "The people that were writing about Jesus wrote about him as would be the case if Jesus were a historical figure". It doesn't mean that Jesus WAS a historical figure, it means that "they" were writing about him AS IF he were. Yes, gullible people were willing to die for Jesus. People were also willing to die for Jim Jones, David Koresh, Marshall Applewhite, Joseph Smith, Mary Baker Eddy, Charles Taze Russel, and many others. Are/were they supernatural? You're not willing to die for Spider Man, but are you willing to die for Jesus and the truth of Christianity? No?? Then you’re a bit smarter than those that did. How can Matthew 2 be historic? Keep in mind that Matthew was written at least 60 years after Jesus’ birth. Without prior written documentation, all Matthew could rely on was hearsay of other hearsay. Yet Matthew 2 gives the account of the virgin birth and the wise men in Bethlehem. If you’ve ever played Telephone (A.K.A. Chinese Whispers) as a kid, quite a bit of embellishment can occur over the course of 60 years. Do you believe Matthew’s gospel of the wise men? Why doesn't anyone else mention them? Do you also believe the historic tale of Joseph Smith finding the golden plates? After all, a few of Joseph Smith’s friends allege that they saw the golden plates (so it must be true).
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Post by Admin on Aug 27, 2023 6:28:39 GMT
"So what if the Bible accurately features historical places. New York City is depicted in the Spider-man movies, doesn’t mean Spider-Man is real!" We know Spider-man was written as a work of fiction. The people that were writing about Jesus wrote about him as if was a historical figure. Every early Christian, plus the likes of Tacitus, Pliny the younger, Lucian, Josephus etc, they all wrote about him as if he was a historical person. Secondly, during the time of Jesus, the disciples ie the first Christians were willing to die for Jesus and the truth of Christianity. You’re not gonna get people today willing to die for the truth of Spider-man. Genesis 1:1 "In the beginning, God created the heaven and the earth." How could that possibly be historic? Nobody was there to witness it. Nobody wrote it down. The only feasible explanation is that someone just assumed "God did it". In the first sentence of the Bible, I’ve debunked your claim that the Bible is historic. Or is that one of the places that you cherry-pick with the word, "context"? I don't think "Jesus" or the "truth of Christianity" have very much to do with Genesis 1:1.
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Post by Feologild Oakes on Aug 27, 2023 8:49:56 GMT
99% of things religious people say about Atheists, are made up things that only happens in their own head.
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Post by FilmFlaneur on Aug 27, 2023 16:12:08 GMT
I don't think "Jesus" or the "truth of Christianity" have very much to do with Genesis 1:1. I thought Christianity held it to be true that in the beginning God created the heavens and the earth?
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Post by amyghost on Aug 27, 2023 16:59:40 GMT
Silly phrases atheists like to say
are nowhere nearly as silly as the phrases theists like to say...as this thread has evidenced.
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Post by Admin on Aug 27, 2023 21:22:50 GMT
I don't think "Jesus" or the "truth of Christianity" have very much to do with Genesis 1:1. I thought Christianity held it to be true that in the beginning God created the heavens and the earth?
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Post by FilmFlaneur on Aug 27, 2023 21:24:50 GMT
I thought Christianity held it to be true that in the beginning God created the heavens and the earth? Guess I was wrong then. Love the image of God laughing at those followers who think the same as I did though...
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Post by progressiveelement on Sept 21, 2023 11:58:20 GMT
You folks don't get out much, do you?
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Post by moviemouth on Dec 12, 2023 17:54:18 GMT
“So what if the Bible accurately features historical places. New York City is depicted in the Spider-man movies, doesn’t mean Spider-Man is real!” I'll go one at a time. This argument is only used when a Christian mentions that one of the reasons they believe the Bible to be true in all areas is because it includes things we know are true in some areas. Saying that "the Bible has real places described means that is a good reason to believe all the events and characters in the Bible are real" is a LOGICAL FALLACY.
And it isn't merely talking about Jesus as a potential person that existed, it is referring to him also being supernatural. Most atheists accept the consensus that there was a man names Jesus that these stories are based on around. Each individual claim needs it's own evidence. That is the case with every single claim ever, not just religious claims.
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Post by moviemouth on Dec 12, 2023 18:04:00 GMT
“You’re just a Christian because of your parents!” This is a claim from the atheist and a claim they can't support. They can't read the mind of the theist, so they would have a burden to prove that the person is only a Christian because of their parents. It might be likely in many cases that a big part of the reason a person is a Christian is because of their parents, but we know for certain there are many Christians who aren't a Christian because of their parents. There are converts from other religions for example.
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