Post by Deleted on Dec 14, 2017 16:14:25 GMT
Dec 14, 2017 3:14:48 GMT @bartlesby said:
Luke received cursory training at best from Obi Wan in the first film and yet in the next film, he's able to use telekinesis. If the training is such an important point when it comes to using the Force, why would he have that ability despite never being trained in it? Did Obi Wan teach him that as a ghost? Or was it just to show that he had natural potential and that the training was there to teach him control and refinement, and ultimately restraint? What I'm saying is that like Rey, he figured out a few tricks by himself after becoming aware of his ability to use the Force, but he required training to learn to control it. This doesn't piss on anything as it has been a theme present since the second film.Also, in Return of the Jedi, Darth Vader is able to read Luke's mind so it's not so far-fetched that they can probe the thoughts of other Jedi if the circumstances are right.
Even Anakin consistently loss to people with superior training, even though his midichlorian count was higher than Yoda's.
Rey bested Kylo over and over again, and effortlessly.
And then there's the confrontation between them in the forest. Kylo knocks her unconscious with the Force. Only for Rey to instantly wake up and outdo him in Force pulling the lightsaber. But as soon as the lightsaber battle starts, suddenly Rey's superior Force ability disappears. Even though a minute earlier she had no problem easily using the Force to best Kylo. This of course is done to create tension right before Rey shows off her MarySue connection to the Force. (Even though this scenario makes no sense).