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Post by general313 on Aug 3, 2018 20:32:30 GMT
What functional difference could one expect to see between a universe as conceived by an atheist and a Spinozist universe? Is there a reason for Spinozists to bother talking about God, since it seems they view God and the universe synonymously? Functional difference? No, at least for most atheists. It's about semantic consistency, atheists believe in God and they don't know it. An atheist is someone who says "Me and John have the same parents but we aren't brothers". That makes about as much sense as me defining Semprini to be the entire universe, then saying you believe in Semprini but don't know it.
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