Post by FilmFlaneur on Aug 13, 2018 13:17:41 GMT
Whether or not this is true - and it is not, as I give a broad one below - that does not invalidate the standing observation that nature cannot, logically speaking, be used to provide an example of 'good', and to presume so - as you do in your article ("the complex ... forces in nature ...required to develop a system of ethics" etc - is a fallacy.
Since I have not been discussing science, and science would not be expected to deal with such matters in any case, I am not sure of the relevance of this. It is interesting, though, to see a purported Christian (and one of your ilk, too) being unable to define good, lol
And I have shown you what constitutes the Naturalistic Fallacy, to which the observations obtain.
QED then.
But you have not asked me. As it happens I can think of quite a few working definitions, a more general example of which I give below.
Remember what I said about ad hominem fallacies? I do.
The concept of good denotes that conduct which is to be, or should be, preferred or approved of when posed with a choice between a set of possible actions, and is the opposite of evil. Most good will refer to the greatest benefit, especially to all. Dictionaries and philosophical encylopedias are, typically, replete with definitions of the word (most usually without the phrase "as found in nature") so your idea that such a thing is 'not possible' is, strictly speaking, false, although feel free to argue with them and win. Of course it is understood that what is good for one may be bad for another. But that is not an issue of a necessary definition, just a confusion of context. I hope that helps.
If not, then you can just look it up in your Bible - which is conspicuously not so chary of definitions as you apparently are...

