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Post by gameboy on Dec 3, 2018 3:31:57 GMT
No. The woman is not pregnant at the time... just being accused of cheating.... It's just a (weird) test of infidelity. Only the one translation that you used uses the word "miscarry". God is supposed to be the ultimate judge in the matter. I think the real test is answered when the woman is so willing to clear her name that she actually drinks the filthy dirt water... A guilty woman would be like "Fuck that noise!.... Yeah... Me and Herschel did it." I see, so we can say the Bible says what we want by claiming the language is a mistranslation? Even in the King James version the emulsion causes "the thigh to rot and the belly to swell". This is clearly an ancient description of a pregnancy and an abortion.
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