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Post by gameboy on Dec 3, 2018 5:10:36 GMT
Please, a swelling belly in the context of that verse clearly refers to pregnancy.
Then why the hell would you assume that it means a miscarriage?  Once again... again... again: THE WOMAN ISN'T PREGANT AT THE TIME OF THE TEST. IT'S NOT A PATERNITY TEST. IT IS A INFIDELITY TEST. And nobody is suggesting that the NIV is shit.... just that IT IS ONE TRANSLATION OF MANY... and no translation is the end all be all of translations. I don't assume it's a miscarriage. A team of ancient language scholars who translated one of the world's most respected and common Bibles called it a miscarriage. But even the King James refers to a swelling belly. That's clearly pregnancy. The ancient prophets didn't understand science. They didn't know that a faithful wife and an adulteress would react the same to an abortion inducing emulsion. But it's clear this was used to abort babies of women who were suspected of adultery. It was never given to faithful wives above suspicion.
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