Post by rizdek on Apr 25, 2019 8:51:39 GMT
I have known of that hypothesis for a while...that the term "day" in Genesis probably didn't mean a literal 24-hr day because of some other scripture (Psalms and 2 Peter) that says a thousand years is like a day to God. But that second scripture can't be taken literally either if one is to accept the philosopher's description of God that he is timeless, so it too, seems to be a figure of speech to mean that God exists in a state where days and years we think of don't mean the same thing to him.
Is there some actual reason to associate the term day in Genesis with the term day used in the Psalm and then again in 2 Peter? This site suggests the two terms are NOT synonymous.
And, these people at creation.com are not atheists.
I could well imagine that the person/people who wrote Genesis might've meant some obscure meaning to the term "day" that meant long period of time. But, I have no reason to because I could also well believe they really did think God just created the whole world in 6 literal days. Why would they think otherwise? Why should we think they should've thought otherwise just because NOW some scientists think evidence suggests the earth and the universe as a whole is billions of years old?
Regardless...it would not change my view that I am not convinced that God exists. So in that case, I feel I haven't been reading the Bible at some elementary level and that that level of reading led to me not thinking God exists.
Do you have another example?