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Post by kls on Sept 22, 2019 14:24:37 GMT
No. It traces Joseph's lineage and calls him the husband of Mary. The language is different. In fact it speaks of Joseph being told if Mary conceiving through the Holy Spirit immediately afterwards. It does now. It has been mistranslated or deliberately altered from the original. How would you know that? Where does Mary's confusion how she could be pregnant come from? Is that also deliberately altered or mistranslated (along with the angel explaining to Joseph how Mary came to be with the Child)?
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