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Post by Eva Yojimbo on Feb 23, 2020 13:08:28 GMT
Are you serious right now? "Is one bag more probable than the other" means... literally precisely that. I can't think of a way to phrase that any more clearly. If all bags are equally likely, the answer is "no." If one bag is more probable than the others, the answer is "yes." "How much more probable" is a way of saying "do the math and give each bag its proper probability." Bayes's Theorem was used here: IMDB2.freeforums.net/post/3693057/thread That's precisely what I used to solve the problem well before dividavi (in a PM I sent to Aj). Phludowin and general313 also did so before him. I can screenshot these solutions with timestamps if you don't believe me. Here's a probability question for you, "What is the probability timestamps from this forum reflect real life sequences of events?" For 30,000 people? For 300 people? For 3 people? For one person with 3 socks? Here's another question. Link. Go ahead and answer it. I won't be upset if you get the answer right. It's not as difficult as it is fascinating. I don't know; Admin, what's the probability that somebody posted a solution to this problem in this thread before I posted the solution to the problem in a PM, which I sent before I posted this thread? Maybe admin knows more about time-traveling paradoxes than I do. In any case, your increasingly convoluted reasoning as to why someone couldn't have solved this (and other) problems with Bayes is becoming extremely hilarious. Earlier it was me "copying" others, now it's that others are time traveling wizards, or that I somehow know how to manipulate this board's time-stamping system to make it seem like I posted a solution to the problem before others in this thread. Funny stuff. I posted a guess in your thread. Unlike you, I'm capable of admitting when I don't know something.
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