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Post by gameboy on Apr 4, 2020 20:08:36 GMT
I believe the U.S. Government owes reparations to the descendants of African-American slaves for allowing U.S. citizens to be enslaved in defiance of the U.S. Bill of Rights. That's a legal issue.However, I don't personally blame anyone who grew up in 18th century for believing slavery was acceptable. It was an established economic practice at the time. I understand you are primarily talking about the US as you are (I presume) an US citizen. But out of curiosity, I wonder - do you believe that to be an US issue only? Or should reparations be given to the descendants of ANY slaves Anywhere, when it means the government allowed enslaving of its nationals/citizens/people who lived/were born there? I mean look at all the countries and the timelines. How would that even work? or just those who were kidnapped/sold from somewhere else? would it have to be a different country or a different town is enough? There is a lot of slavery history all over the world, applying to any/all races and ethnicities at one point or another. I can only speak to slavery in America. Other nations will have to look at their own past. African-Americans have half the net family income of white Americans. The wealth and labor stolen impacts them to this day. If your great great grandfather's wealth was stolen that puts you at a disadvantage today. And the U.S. Constitution enshrined slavery and said blacks were 3/5 of a human being. Our government clearly owes payback.
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