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Post by Admin on Apr 6, 2020 4:09:12 GMT
No, I'm saying they were not counted for legislative representation and taxing purposes based on population. The Constitution says that the total size of a state's delegation to the House (ie, number of Representatives) depends on its population. I believe it's something like one for every 40k or so people. If I go to Mexico and bring back 100 million Mexicans to Los Angeles, does California then get 2,000 additional Representatives? Actually, non-citizens are counted in the census. So their numbers are used to decide the size of congressional districts and the number of representatives each state gets in the House. So yes, if you bring over 100 million Mexicans then California gets over a fourth of the House. But the Mexicans still can't vote. So the state with the most Mexicans wins the House? Better not let Texas hear about that. At any rate, I'm sure there were many back then who truly believed that blacks were not "fully human," (not unlike how Jews were viewed by the Nazis), but that isn't why only 66% of them were counted for the census. As stated, the reason only three out of five slaves were counted for the census was... drum roll please... for legislative representation and taxing purposes based on population.
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