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Post by gadreel on Jun 28, 2017 19:00:09 GMT
Here's an interesting passage in Matthew:
So when Jesus says he could call on the Father to send angels to save him, does that mean he literally could have done so and events would have played out differently (and Scripture not be fulfilled)? Or is he merely saying he theoretically has the power to do so but he could not actually do it as that is not how the future is set out?
I would go with the first, Jesus is clearly saying he is capable of doing it, but then questions how would the scriptures be fulfilled. At the end of the day he is saying he would prefer to fulfill the scripture. To be fair I am not seeing the difference in your two stances, he could have done it and events would have played out differently, but he decided not to so because the fulfillment of scripture was more important to him. I guess you could say that he was therefore always locked into not doing it as he was designed (for lack of a better word ) to fulfill scripture and so would never have done it.
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