Post by CoolJGS☺ on Oct 20, 2017 21:39:38 GMT
Very few people are masturbating for clinical purposes.
Matthew 5:27-28
“You have heard that it was said, ‘You shall not commit adultery;’ but I tell you that everyone who gazes at a woman to lust after her has committed adultery with her already in his heart."
There are two words which are translated "woman" in the original Greek, one which refers to women in general, and one that refers to married women. The word translated "woman" in this verse is always used to refer to a married woman, not just any woman in general. I also think that this is obvious because Jesus says looking with lust is "adultery." Adultery can not happen between two people who are not married, so if Jesus had meant any woman in general, he would have said that we had committed fornication, not adultery.
Also, the Biblical definition of "lust" or "covet" is "desire with intent." In other words, it means that you have intentions of acting upon your desires. Scripture also mentions good "lusts." I can't recall which verse it is, but it says, "If a man desires the office of a bishop, he desires a good thing." The word translated "desire" in that verse is the same one used to translate "lust" in the above verse.
If I were to make a translation of Scripture, I would most likely translate the passage as:
"But I say to you that whoever looks at a another man's wife and has the intention of taking her, he has already committed adultery with her in his heart."
A lot of even the modern translations use archaic terms, and this is one of those points that nobody has seemed to update over the years, in order to use non-archaic terminology.
Also, considering how in-depth the sex laws in Exodus go (God could have simply said, "Do not lie with a close relative." But instead, he listed all the people, as if one verse wasn't enough), I find it strange of God had a problem with Masturbation and didn't list it in the laws. It just seems to me that God doesn't have much of a problem with it.
There are two words which are translated "woman" in the original Greek, one which refers to women in general, and one that refers to married women. The word translated "woman" in this verse is always used to refer to a married woman, not just any woman in general. I also think that this is obvious because Jesus says looking with lust is "adultery." Adultery can not happen between two people who are not married, so if Jesus had meant any woman in general, he would have said that we had committed fornication, not adultery.
Are you saying that it is perfectly acceptable for a married man to lust after a single woman?
The word used actually is the generic form of woman meaning it can stand for anything so it's important to look at context and it's not always the case. It's the equivalent of "Ms."
Also, the Biblical definition of "lust" or "covet" is "desire with intent." In other words, it means that you have intentions of acting upon your desires. Scripture also mentions good "lusts." I can't recall which verse it is, but it says, "If a man desires the office of a bishop, he desires a good thing." The word translated "desire" in that verse is the same one used to translate "lust" in the above verse.
There's two ways to look at the desire with intent issue. Either there is no intent with lust/desire since it would be silly to suggest horniness requires action or there is intent and it just isn;t connected to the sex act but rather masturbation.
in any event, I'm not sure there is any way to see a condoning for the practice even if the practice occasionally happens.
Also, considering how in-depth the sex laws in Exodus go (God could have simply said, "Do not lie with a close relative." But instead, he listed all the people, as if one verse wasn't enough), I find it strange of God had a problem with Masturbation and didn't list it in the laws. It just seems to me that God doesn't have much of a problem with it.I'm not really sure if the Bible would categorize masturbation as sex in the first place. It is not the first thing I think of.
However, Leviticus has numerous instances of semen emissions being unclean even during sex (Something that is unclean is not necessarily a sin since sex between marriage mates is not a sin).
Further, in the NT which pertains to Christians, there are distinctions between uncleanness, fornication, & brazen conduct although they are often linked to the same problem - desire, selfishness, & a lack of self-control. Basically a chronic jacker offer lacks self-control just like the ones who boink outside of marriage.