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Post by Arlon10 on Apr 27, 2023 7:21:44 GMT
Elsewhere it was said that "there can be on objective morality." Actually the police represent one. If you have police, you have an objective morality.
In these random access discussion boards one might find all sorts of shades of meaning, perhaps it meant the police shouldn't pretend theirs is an objective morality.
Setting that aside and going to the top of the page, there are individuals whose interests are sometimes found to conflict. Morality can be described as the means to resolve at least some of those conflicts.
In that sense morality can be inherently objective, something beyond those interests found to conflict. It might make more sense to say there can be no subjective morality.
Not to complain about any atheists on this board in particular, it can be "characteristic" of atheists generally that they are extremely simple folk. Perhaps that was always the case or perhaps decades of blind faith in science has "rotted their brains" (lost skills through disuse).
Differences in interests happen so frequently that most people have given at least some forethought how to deal with them should they occur. Some plans are deemed valuable to rather large numbers of people.
One plan is to avoid traffic with people whose interests differ. The famous Wiccan Rede holds that " ... it harm none, do what ye will." It allows traffic where one's own interests are not challenged (when in Rome, do as the Romans).
Another plan hopes to establish a consensus as far as possible that will achieve "the greatest good for the greatest number" (also known as Jeremy Bentham's "Utilitarianism"). It is much like basic "democracy" but with more respect for the minority.
Another formulation often found at the base of systems of morality is the necessity of any rules to apply the same to oneself and others, the "Golden Rule, do unto others as you would have them do unto you."
While a very significant majority of people accept all those basic ideas, considerable differences can arise in their implementation.
A question that often arises is how much any well developed strategies of cooperation owe to "religion" and whether strategies of comparable value might be developed without religion.
In a moment of special clarity someone here reminded us that "science is descriptive, not prescriptive." Political differences are usually differences of opinion not fact. Science can sometimes find the fact. Science is useless in the world of differing opinions.
That means the better developed strategies of cooperation require art, not science. Whether you call it "religion" or something else, it is an art, not a science.
When a disagreement occurs over some moral question, it is often a "time tested" moral question. People born into families with few traditions often fail to accept the time tested solution. The problem in the United States today is in part that the Democrats have so few traditions. The Republicans, for the other part, cannot help them because Republicans blindly accepted their own traditions and do not fully understand them themselves.
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The Lost One
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Post by The Lost One on Apr 27, 2023 10:16:02 GMT
Elsewhere it was said that "there can be on objective morality." Actually the police represent one. If you have police, you have an objective morality. The police enforce the law, not morality. And police forces in different places and times enforce different laws so they don't represent objectivity either.
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Post by Arlon10 on Apr 28, 2023 1:18:20 GMT
Elsewhere it was said that "there can be on objective morality." Actually the police represent one. If you have police, you have an objective morality. The police enforce the law, not morality. And police forces in different places and times enforce different laws so they don't represent objectivity either. Are stealing and killing immoral because they are illegal, or are they illegal because they are immoral? I suspect they were immoral first and that was further objectified into law.
That not everyone agrees to objective truth, does not make it any less objective. Who made up the rule that it does? You?
I still say there was an objective morality before it was made into law, which is the why and how it became law.
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Post by Karl Aksel on Apr 28, 2023 7:53:45 GMT
The law can be said to represent objective morality in a microcosmos. But even that's a bit misleading: the law is objectively what it is, but anyone can disagree with the law. In fact, I doubt there are many who are in complete agreement with all of the law. And laws do change, so the morality the law represents is only a temporary one. The law, then, is an attempt to carve in stone a message which is forever changing. It's like if you take a picture of a landscape: the landscape in the picture will never change, but the actual landscape will. The picture only presents the landscape accurately as it was in a specific moment in time.
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The Lost One
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Post by The Lost One on Apr 28, 2023 8:37:19 GMT
Are stealing and killing immoral because they are illegal, or are they illegal because they are immoral? Stealing and even killing are sometimes considered moral in certain circumstances though. The law doesn't differentiate between a man who steals to feed his starving family and a man who swipes a homeless man's shoes so at best it represents a generalisation of morality. Plus there have been laws in different times and places which I think we can all agree are/were immoral. Let's say there is an objective morality (an idea I'm not strongly opposed to). This morality may be partly enshrined in laws, but it may also be mixed with immoral laws and the fact that laws change in different times and places suggest that laws have always enforced this imperfect morality. Now let's suppose morality is subjective. Laws would be what they are and it would be up to each individual to decide that they are just or not. Whether morality is objective or subjective, the law's correlation with morality is always going to be a loose one. Agreed. I'm not arguing about whether morality is objective, just as to whether the existence of police demonstrates this objectivity. Laws are made by the powerful to suit their beliefs and needs and sometimes this includes kowtowing to pressure from below. This may lead to a hypothetical moral truth being reflected in the law if it is something that the powerful believe in, or it suits their purposes, or enshrining it in law is the only way to prevent themselves being toppled from power. But it may lead to the opposite where a moral truth is negated by the law because it doesn't fit the needs or beliefs of the powerful. And if there is no moral truth then whether the laws made by the powerful are moral is no more than a matter of opinion. That laws exist only demonstrates that the powerful have beliefs and needs which they want enshrined by force. It doesn't mean that they have discovered some moral truth which they are making sure the law reflects.
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Post by Karl Aksel on Apr 28, 2023 16:22:54 GMT
Laws are made by the powerful to suit their beliefs and needs and sometimes this includes kowtowing to pressure from below. This may lead to a hypothetical moral truth being reflected in the law if it is something that the powerful believe in, or it suits their purposes, or enshrining it in law is the only way to prevent themselves being toppled from power. But it may lead to the opposite where a moral truth is negated by the law because it doesn't fit the needs or beliefs of the powerful. And if there is no moral truth then whether the laws made by the powerful are moral is no more than a matter of opinion. That laws exist only demonstrates that the powerful have beliefs and needs which they want enshrined by force. It doesn't mean that they have discovered some moral truth which they are making sure the law reflects. There clearly are moral truths - the issue is whether or not there are moral facts. Truths are subjective, facts are not.
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Post by Arlon10 on Apr 28, 2023 22:41:44 GMT
There appear to be some significant differences in the definitions people use for several words here. The words; moral, legal, subjective, objective, fact, are truth are being used here with non-standard definitions. I understand how some topics can require special definitions, and have used such "ad hoc" definitions many times before. However I am not seeing the utility here of any of these non-standard definitions. For my own part, I will be using definitions much like those in the Concise Oxford English Dictionary
For me then the difference between a moral and a law is that the law is enforced by penalties. For me facts are objective and truths are especially objective as well. For me, here, objective means recognizing that other viewpoints exist and are required to align for an objective view. Now back to the original topic. I think it is a typical question whether religion is essential to the development of morality. As I said at the outset, it is often the case that differences arise. It is also often the case that people attempt to resolve those differences. There is a "natural" process then that could well develop a system of morality. The only remaining question is how well it works and does having religion help it develop better. I suspect the question is moot. The process is identified with some sort of school of religion or philosophy anyway. And of course "science" is totally useless in the world of opinions. I suspect the reason many people expect "science" to solve political problems is that they are mentally deficient and fail to distinguish facts and opinions.
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