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Post by awhina on Mar 4, 2017 6:28:47 GMT
tpfkar You and Ada insult so hard. ze faxWait. You're Rabbit? Oh well that explains a lot.
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Post by cupcakes on Mar 4, 2017 6:36:23 GMT
As brilliant a comment as you ever muster. I never claimed that, liar Allaby. May you rot in an old folk's home for the last 45 years of your life, and have to listen to 'elevator music' and eat tasteless food for invalids, and never have sex again.
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Post by awhina on Mar 4, 2017 6:37:51 GMT
As brilliant a comment as you ever muster. I never claimed that, liar Allaby. May you rot in an old folk's home for the last 45 years of your life, and have to listen to 'elevator music' and eat tasteless food for invalids, and never have sex again.Goodbye psychopath.
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Post by cupcakes on Mar 4, 2017 6:41:15 GMT
tpfkar Nice chatting with you, reprobate. Faecal freaks? I like it! He is risen indeed!
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fatpaul
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Post by fatpaul on Mar 4, 2017 17:10:46 GMT
This is incorrect. Occam has been formalized via Solomonoff Induction, which is a bit too complex to fully explain in this post, but to reference the most relevant parts... My definitional is from The Oxford Companion to Philosophy: We tend towards simpler explanations and methods and we question if this bias for simplicity relates truthfully the real world. We look for justification of our bias's truthfulness and the Solomonoff Induction itself is a mathematical justification for our bias, along with many other explanations, none of which are without their problems (see Simplicity). [Edited] I don't see how SI would even claim that OR is a real principle but rather a high likelihood that it could be real given that the theory itself is falsifiable. So I still stand by my statement, specifically that OR is a tendency for simplicity in us, not necessarily a tendency of the universe, or more precisely: OR is a tendency for simplicity, which we have, not necessarily a tendency to what's real. Just to leave you this quote also, from Occam's razor:
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Post by cupcakes on Mar 5, 2017 15:39:20 GMT
tpfkar Whisper kitten, I can't help it you were cowed into posting a chubby-cheeked Mennonite-looking putz. You guys can go off on Kyle Gass all day long, I'm pretty sure you're hurting his feelings real bad.
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Post by Eva Yojimbo on Mar 5, 2017 17:49:21 GMT
The way you had been using it seemed a very particular KIND of trust/confidence. They can have "faith" in the basic "trust/confidence" sense, yes. But earlier your definition of faith was "complete trust/confidence." So, again, two distinct meanings being discussed here.
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Post by Eva Yojimbo on Mar 5, 2017 18:06:38 GMT
This is incorrect. Occam has been formalized via Solomonoff Induction, which is a bit too complex to fully explain in this post, but to reference the most relevant parts... Solomonoff Induction itself is a mathematical justification for our bias, along with many other explanations, none of which are without their problems
First sentence is correct. I don't know what you mean by the bolded part. Again you're confusing me. SI is a mathematical proof for Occam. Since SI is a method for finding hypothesis to explain empirical data (ie, reality), then the proof would mean that simpler explanations of that reality are more likely; ergo an ontological principle. I gave an example with the conjunction fallacy: the probability of A+B can never be greater than A or B alone. If we're talking about variable VS invariable laws, then with the latter we have A (the invariable laws that apply everywhere), while with the former we'd have A+B (plus perhaps many more). There's no way the invariable hypothesis can be more likely sans evidence. Occam is also a heuristic technique, yes, but this does not prevent it from also being an ontological principle. In this case, it happens to be both. In fact, science chose it as a heuristic because it seemed to map well to reality. SI was just proof that it did. It's also worth pointing out the "probability is in the mind" aspect of this. What we're really talking about isn't just reality, but hypotheses to explain reality. When dealing with hypotheses you ARE dealing with the mind because it's essentially the mind that's attempting to map reality. In constructing a hypothesis, every additional element you add has a probability of being wrong, and the more you add, the more the joint probabilities lowers the collective probability of the hypothesis. This is essentially what SI shows in a very rigorous manner, since all binary data adds 1-bit to a hypothesis that's either true/false (50/50). The more you add, the more that you need to be correct. You can think of it like a coin-flip: the sequence HHTTH will always be more likely than HTTHTH merely by virtue of the former being shorter/simpler. This is SI in a nutshell, and it supports the principle of Occam.
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fatpaul
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Post by fatpaul on Mar 5, 2017 19:07:57 GMT
There are many justifications for OR, from naturalistic to theological, each with their own problems, and I linked to a page on simplicity as way of an example. Apologies for any confusion, my point to you, cham, and the OP, is that there comes a point in any reasoning, whether scientific or theological, where we may have to take certain principles and axioms on faith, that is mostly, appeal to the authority that proposed such principles and axioms. You offered one of the most fundamental logical principles, OR, for justification that the laws are invariant to which I replied that a bias in us doesn't necessarily mean that it is a bias towards reality. You stated, and still do, that SI gives us every confidence in OR being a true real principle. This I do not deny, in fact like everyone else, I tend to simplicity and would like to think this tendency is truth-driven and justified but, as shown in my link to simplicity, it not quite a done deal in the realms of scientific realism. Scientific realism, or reality itself, may be judged in three areas, metaphysics, semantics, and epistemology. Empiricism cannot explain the metaphysical, being of the physical, and questions are always asked of our semantical interpretation, so one has to ask what this means epistemically. My bolded part implies to me that you think otherwise, in that empiricism is reality; empiricism is for efficiency and rationalism is for reason which both may, or may not, explain reality. It may seem pedantic of me, but even using any method or logical principle that itself tends to simplicity to justify this tendency for simplicity, needs to be questioned if the end game is to know the nature of reality.
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Post by Eva Yojimbo on Mar 5, 2017 19:24:47 GMT
my point to you, cham, and the OP, is that there comes a point in any reasoning, whether scientific or theological, where we may have to take certain principles and axioms on faith, that is mostly, appeal to the authority that proposed such principles and axioms. You offered one of the most fundamental logical principles, OR, for justification that the laws are invariant to which I replied that a bias in us doesn't necessarily mean that it is a bias towards reality. You stated, and still do, that SI gives us every confidence in OR being a true real principle. This I do not deny, in fact like everyone else, I tend to simplicity and would like to think this tendency is truth-driven and justified but, as shown in my link to simplicity, it not quite a done deal in the realms of scientific realism. Scientific realism, or reality itself, may be judged in three areas, metaphysics, semantics, and epistemology. Empiricism cannot explain the metaphysical, being of the physical, and questions are always asked of our semantical interpretation, so one has to ask what this means epistemically. My bolded part implies to me that you think otherwise, in that empiricism is reality; empiricism is for efficiency and rationalism is for reason which both may, or may not, explain reality. It may seem pedantic of me, but even using any method or logical principle that itself tends to simplicity to justify this tendency for simplicity, needs to be questioned if the end game is to know the nature of reality. One of the fundamental principles of logic is that the propositions must be assumed and can't be proven within the framework of the formulated argument. One of the fundamental problems of philosophy is how to determine what premises to assume to begin with. However, I'd argue that we do not have to take principles on faith. Rather, I think there's a recursive relationship between rationality and empiricism. In particular, we can make assumptions, test their consequences, and if they match the empirical results then that's evidence that the assumptions are true. If you take math as an example, the peano axioms are assumed but not proven; we continue to assume them because they seem to accurately model reality (ie, they match our empirical experiences). I would say that Occam is much the same way, and we assume it on the same principles by which we assume mathematical axioms. I do realize there are some realist problems with the notion of simplicity. Even within the realm of computational complexity much depends on what language we choose. Using binary is one way to try to get around this, since binary is universal and the simplest language possible (you can't create a language simpler than one that relies on true/false). That may ultimately prove impractical, but I'm just speaking in principle here. For some things, however, we needn't bother with these gray areas of simplicity/complexity: I keep using it as an example, but the conjunction fallacy applies no matter what language we choose or how we define complexity/simplicity, and the variant/variant distinction is a pretty straight-forward example of it. RE your second paragraph: In philosophy, metaphysics doesn't mean "beyond the physical," but just refers to whatever is--all the notions surrounding being. If there is something beyond the physical, this would fall under metaphysics; but the existence of atoms fall under the category of metaphysics as well. Most rationalists don't bother with metaphysics since we recognize that ultimately what we're concerned with is making it so our models--perceptions of how reality functions--matches our phenomenal experience of reality. If they do, we don't see much point in questioning it beyond that point since it just turns into intellectual masturbation with no experiential consequences. So when I say that Occam is an "ontological principle" I'm saying that in the sense that I (and other) conflate our empirical experience of reality with reality itself, so that it's a principle of our map-making abilities. The same way you might say when looking at a tree that "the tree exists" without going through the rigmarole of saying "I'm experiencing my visual cortex's interpretation and reconstruction of photons that are bouncing off an object that may or may not exist beyond by perception in the form that I call a tree." Here's a good read on the subjective of recursive justification: lesswrong.com/lw/s0/where_recursive_justification_hits_bottom/
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fatpaul
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Post by fatpaul on Mar 5, 2017 19:58:06 GMT
One of the fundamental principles of logic is that the propositions must be assumed and can't be proven within the framework of the formulated argument. One of the fundamental problems of philosophy is how to determine what premises to assume to begin with. However, I'd argue that we do not have to take principles on faith. Rather, I think there's a recursive relationship between rationality and empiricism. In particular, we can make assumptions, test their consequences, and if they match the empirical results then that's evidence that the assumptions are true. If you take math as an example, the peano axioms are assumed but not proven; we continue to assume them because they seem to accurately model reality (ie, they match our empirical experiences). I would say that Occam is much the same way, and we assume it on the same principles by which we assume mathematical axioms. I do realize there are some realist problems with the notion of simplicity. Even within the realm of computational complexity much depends on what language we choose. Using binary is one way to try to get around this, since binary is universal and the simplest language possible (you can't create a language simpler than one that relies on true/false). That may ultimately prove impractical, but I'm just speaking in principle here. For some things, however, we needn't bother with these gray areas of simplicity/complexity: I keep using it as an example, but the conjunction fallacy applies no matter what language we choose or how we define complexity/simplicity, and the variant/variant distinction is a pretty straight-forward example of it. RE your second paragraph: In philosophy, metaphysics doesn't mean "beyond the physical," but just refers to whatever is--all the notions surrounding being. If there is something beyond the physical, this would fall under metaphysics; but the existence of atoms fall under the category of metaphysics as well. Most rationalists don't bother with metaphysics since we recognize that ultimately what we're concerned with is making it so our models--perceptions of how reality functions--matches our phenomenal experience of reality. If they do, we don't see much point in questioning it beyond that point since it just turns into intellectual masturbation with no experiential consequences. So when I say that Occam is an "ontological principle" I'm saying that in the sense that I (and other) conflate our empirical experience of reality with reality itself, so that it's a principle of our map-making abilities. The same way you might say when looking at a tree that "the tree exists" without going through the rigmarole of saying "I'm experiencing my visual cortex's interpretation and reconstruction of photons that are bouncing off an object that may or may not exist beyond by perception in the form that I call a tree." Here's a good read on the subjective of recursive justification: lesswrong.com/lw/s0/where_recursive_justification_hits_bottom/Good post btw, in that you hit the nail with the recursive justification, so I'll check your link out. I've no arguments with what you've said and fair point about metaphysics also. Hopefully after reading your link, I'll get back with some more discussion.
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Post by Eva Yojimbo on Mar 5, 2017 20:08:32 GMT
One of the fundamental principles of logic is that the propositions must be assumed and can't be proven within the framework of the formulated argument. One of the fundamental problems of philosophy is how to determine what premises to assume to begin with. However, I'd argue that we do not have to take principles on faith. Rather, I think there's a recursive relationship between rationality and empiricism. In particular, we can make assumptions, test their consequences, and if they match the empirical results then that's evidence that the assumptions are true. If you take math as an example, the peano axioms are assumed but not proven; we continue to assume them because they seem to accurately model reality (ie, they match our empirical experiences). I would say that Occam is much the same way, and we assume it on the same principles by which we assume mathematical axioms. I do realize there are some realist problems with the notion of simplicity. Even within the realm of computational complexity much depends on what language we choose. Using binary is one way to try to get around this, since binary is universal and the simplest language possible (you can't create a language simpler than one that relies on true/false). That may ultimately prove impractical, but I'm just speaking in principle here. For some things, however, we needn't bother with these gray areas of simplicity/complexity: I keep using it as an example, but the conjunction fallacy applies no matter what language we choose or how we define complexity/simplicity, and the variant/variant distinction is a pretty straight-forward example of it. RE your second paragraph: In philosophy, metaphysics doesn't mean "beyond the physical," but just refers to whatever is--all the notions surrounding being. If there is something beyond the physical, this would fall under metaphysics; but the existence of atoms fall under the category of metaphysics as well. Most rationalists don't bother with metaphysics since we recognize that ultimately what we're concerned with is making it so our models--perceptions of how reality functions--matches our phenomenal experience of reality. If they do, we don't see much point in questioning it beyond that point since it just turns into intellectual masturbation with no experiential consequences. So when I say that Occam is an "ontological principle" I'm saying that in the sense that I (and other) conflate our empirical experience of reality with reality itself, so that it's a principle of our map-making abilities. The same way you might say when looking at a tree that "the tree exists" without going through the rigmarole of saying "I'm experiencing my visual cortex's interpretation and reconstruction of photons that are bouncing off an object that may or may not exist beyond by perception in the form that I call a tree." Here's a good read on the subjective of recursive justification: lesswrong.com/lw/s0/where_recursive_justification_hits_bottom/Good post btw, in that you hit the nail with the recursive justification, so I'll check your link out. I've no arguments with what you've said and fair point about metaphysics also. Hopefully after reading your link, I'll get back with some more discussion.
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Post by Vegas on Mar 5, 2017 20:29:54 GMT
They can have "faith" in the basic "trust/confidence" sense, yes. But earlier your definition of faith was "complete trust/confidence." So, again, two distinct meanings being discussed here. I'm not going to argue the distinction between "basic".. a word not used in the dictionary definition.... and "certain".. the word that is. I don't care to what degree a person can or can not have doubts when they are acting in complete faith or trust in someone/something. Once again... I jump off of a roof so the fire men can catch me, it doesn't matter if I have doubts.. I acted in complete faith that they would. Seriously.. What the hell would be the difference between the jumper who has complete faith and one who had some doubt if they both jumped? Other than the trail of sht following the one guy down.
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Post by Eva Yojimbo on Mar 5, 2017 20:36:34 GMT
They can have "faith" in the basic "trust/confidence" sense, yes. But earlier your definition of faith was "complete trust/confidence." So, again, two distinct meanings being discussed here. Seriously.. What the hell would be the difference between the jumper who has complete faith and one who had some doubt if they both jumped? Well, this is what I asked you earlier. To me, someone can jump having "complete trust" they'll be caught, or they can jump having doubts they'll be caught but deciding that the rewards outweigh the risks. So it seems someone can ignore the doubts entirely that they'll be caught and have "faith" ("complete trust"), or decide the doubts aren't enough to prevent action and have "faith" ("enough trust"). I do think there's a cognitive difference between faith as "complete trust" and faith as "enough trust." The latter can be wholly supported by evidence and reason; the former can't.
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Post by Vegas on Mar 5, 2017 21:15:42 GMT
Why the hell could you not have evidence in something and believe it to the point of having faith in it.. but still have some doubts or understand that the evidence that you are basing that faith on is circumstantial... but still believe in it enough to support the belief that you are putting faith in?
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Post by Eva Yojimbo on Mar 5, 2017 21:53:50 GMT
Why the hell could you not have evidence in something and believe it to the point of having faith in it.. but still have some doubts or understand that the evidence that you are basing that faith on is circumstantial... but still believe in it enough to support the belief that you are putting faith in? This goes back to what I said about evidence not being able to justify "complete confidence" (which I take to mean "certainty") in something. If you try to exclude or ignore doubts in order to have "complete confidence" then I'd say you have "faith" in the "complete confidence" sense. If you're just allowing evidence/reason to take you to the point it takes and you deem that enough confidence to act, then you only have faith in the "enough confidence" sense. I think these two senses are distinct but have been conflated throughout this thread.
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Post by looking4klingons on Mar 8, 2017 5:11:44 GMT
You're right, I agree.
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Post by looking4klingons on Mar 8, 2017 5:13:50 GMT
Defining terms is pretty good way to proceed with an argument, and you've been resisting providing a clear definition of "faith." A practical example: A guy comes to me wanting to wager on the roll of a fair six-sided die. He's convinced that today is his lucky day and is absolutely certain that a 6 will come up when the die is rolled. While I think that there's a possibility that that will be the result, probably it will be some other number. The odds are in my favor so I take the bet. Is this an act of faith on my part? How about the other guy, is he demonstrating faith? If you take the wager... You both are. You both are exercising faith in the next roll. Yours is a bit more reasonable.. But: THE EXISTENCE OF BLIND FAITH DOES NOT NEGATE THE EXISTENCE OF REASON-BASED FAITH. I agree. If you find fake money, that doesn't mean all money is fake. Same with paranormal activity, imo.
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Post by lowtacks86 on Mar 8, 2017 5:27:36 GMT
Those two examples aren't really "faith", the word "confidence" would be more accurate. We've seen people perform dangerous circus acts before so we know it's possible, thus we're "confident" not "faithful" that a trapeze artist will perform his act without falling because it's been demonstrated before. There's never been any evidence of a magical anthropomorphic creator of the universe (and no flimsy philosophical arguments don't count). It's why people typically don't say they have "confidence" God exists and use a more appropriate word (faith). Do you apply your flimsy definition of "faith" towards everyday mundane things while you're at it? If you call a plumber do you have"faith" he's going to unclog your toilet? Sure does take away a lot of the mysticism from the term doesn't it?
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Post by Vegas on Mar 8, 2017 6:10:44 GMT
You do.... when you pay him. Who says that it always has to be mystical?
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