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Post by Cinemachinery on Dec 1, 2017 18:45:53 GMT
Subjective.
Humorously, the main defense of objective morality is a subjective notion based on subjective outlook.
The whole "then you have no basis of authority for your beliefs" thing always baffles me... it's a tacit admittance that the individual needs to be told murder or theft is wrong by a theoretical higher power in order to feel it valid.
This goes hand in hand with the "so anything goes?!" response: the individual would immediately revert to "anything goes" without believing a god told them what was right? Frightening.
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Post by Terrapin Station on Dec 1, 2017 18:53:16 GMT
 What I asked you was where would you say that is it located
Instinct is located within us, no? That, by definition, is subjective. Instinct is not subjective. It's hard wired. Subjective doesn't refer to "not hard-wired." Subjective simply denotes that we're talking about a mental phenomenon rather than a non-mental phenomenon. Plenty of mental phenomena may be hard-wired so to speak.
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Post by lowtacks86 on Dec 1, 2017 19:08:31 GMT
Subjective. Even the so called "objective" morality of religion isn't really objective (it's why Christianity and Islam have a bunch of different sects/churches)
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Post by The Lost One on Dec 1, 2017 22:41:24 GMT
Morality is subjective that is indisputable, the way to prove this is ask for a simple objective moral rule. All that shows is that if there are objective morals, there is disagreement about what they are. I'm not sure you could show objective morals don't exist. Better arguments against them are those that try to show they are unlikely or incoherent or we wouldn't be able to tell what they were if they did exist, or that even if we knew they existed and what they were, why would that obligate us to follow them? More interesting to me is whether moral questions even really make sense unless we assume there are objective morals. Most of us don't act or feel we should act like a child killer just has a different outlook to us even if deep down we may think this so. Most of us when in a moral dilemma try to consider what the right thing to do is, but if there are no objective morals, what are we appealing to exactly? Surely whatever our action, it will be no more or less moral than any other. One way round this might be to say morality is that which is deemed likely to bring consequences we want. For instance if I steal from Julie, Julie won't trust me in future so it is better if I don't do so and it is better for me if others behave similarly. But while this maybe explains the origin of morals, it doesn't really fit with how most people seem to think of morals - when we do a good deed, we don't feel we do it out of some enlightened selfishness. I feel Sartre is one of the few philosophers who actually committed fully to subjective morals. If we are the only arbiter of our own morality then all our actions are deemed moral by us having done them. But most of us I think baulk at such an attitude. Suppose I've wittered on enough so short version of the above: both objective and subjective moral theories seem highly problematic to me.
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Post by viola on Dec 1, 2017 22:49:46 GMT
Morality is subjective that is indisputable, the way to prove this is ask for a simple objective moral rule. All that shows is that if there are objective morals, there is disagreement about what they are. I'm not sure you could show objective morals don't exist. Better arguments against them are those that try to show they are unlikely or incoherent or we wouldn't be able to tell what they were if they did exist, or that even if we knew they existed and what they were, why would that obligate us to follow them? More interesting to me is whether moral questions even really make sense unless we assume there are objective morals. Most of us don't act or feel we should act like a child killer just has a different outlook to us even if deep down we may think this so. Most of us when in a moral dilemma try to consider what the right thing to do is, but if there are no objective morals, what are we appealing to exactly? Surely whatever our action, it will be no more or less moral than any other. One way round this might be to say morality is that which is deemed likely to bring consequences we want. For instance if I steal from Julie, Julie won't trust me in future so it is better if I don't do so and it is better for me if others behave similarly. But while this maybe explains the origin of morals, it doesn't really fit with how most people seem to think of morals - when we do a good deed, we don't feel we do it out of some enlightened selfishness. I feel Sartre is one of the few philosophers who actually committed fully to subjective morals. If we are the only arbiter of our own morality than all our actions are deemed moral by us having done them. But most of us I think baulk at such an attitude. Suppose I've wittered on enough so short version of the above: both objective and subjective moral theories seem highly problematic to me. Well said, LostKiera – I’ve been working out my thoughts on this subject and should be able to post them tomorrow.
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Post by Eva Yojimbo on Dec 2, 2017 1:13:45 GMT
Morality is subjective that is indisputable, the way to prove this is ask for a simple objective moral rule. More interesting to me is whether moral questions even really make sense unless we assume there are objective morals. Most of us don't act or feel we should act like a child killer just has a different outlook to us even if deep down we may think this so. Most of us when in a moral dilemma try to consider what the right thing to do is, but if there are no objective morals, what are we appealing to exactly? Surely whatever our action, it will be no more or less moral than any other. One way round this might be to say morality is that which is deemed likely to bring consequences we want. For instance if I steal from Julie, Julie won't trust me in future so it is better if I don't do so and it is better for me if others behave similarly. But while this maybe explains the origin of morals, it doesn't really fit with how most people seem to think of morals - when we do a good deed, we don't feel we do it out of some enlightened selfishness. I think your post here boils down to you being puzzled why our instincts/intuitions/feelings about morality don't seem to align with the supposed-fact of morality being subjective. To that I'd make two arguments: One, what SHOULD we feel like if morals were subjective and how would we distinguish that from what we should feel like if they were objective? What would the difference be? Two, from an evolutionary standpoint, it makes sense that we should feel just as strongly about morality, if not even more so, than things that are objective, like the existence of the sun. I mean, the sun just kinda hangs out and does its own thing a long ways a way from us and there's not much we can do to affect it; but morality profoundly affect our daily existence. I certainly care much more that you think murdering me is wrong than I do for feeling that the sun objectively exists. To answer your question about "what are we appealing to," I'd say a few possible things: one would be the consequences you allude to, but another would be what some neutral, 3rd party who had no personal stake in the issue would think was moral. In the latter case, morality becomes like the rules of a game that we all agree to and perhaps need referees (in the case of morality, courts of law; or even just neutral 3rd parties) to sort out. This is basically where we get the golden rule from, because if a society is going to function we each need to feel like there's fairness, that if I don't want to be stolen from I won't steal from you; and we put in place laws to make it official, and police and courts to enforce it; and even in a situation where the latter likely wouldn't be involved, we would still have in our conscience the fact that we're apart of this society that's agreed to these rules and that we'd be breaking them. In a way, I'm reminded of what Robert Frost once wrote about free verse poetry, saying that it was like playing tennis without a net. His point was that in art (just like morals, just like games) we impose certain rules, laws, and principles that make the art/game/society possible. If I sit down to play poker, there's an implicit understanding that I'm going to play by the rules, and that if my King-high loses to an Ace-high I'm not going to start complaining that the rules are just subjective so there's no reason I shouldn't win the pot. How could we play poker if we didn't agree on the rules? And how could society function if we didn't come to some kind of agreements about morality? In fact, looking at games it's probably much easier to understand why subjectivity gets confused with objectivity. When playing, you don't think "well, my hand is only subjectively worse than his hand, but since we've all agreed to the rules he should still get the pot;" you just think "my hand is worse than his, he gets the pot." Yet it's also fairly obvious if you think about it for a moment that the former is correct. There's nothing objective about an Ace that makes it better than a king, we just agree that it is in order to play the game, and we can easily invent rules where it isn't (in fact we have them in poker in the form of Lowball games).
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Post by scienceisgod on Dec 2, 2017 7:36:06 GMT
It only takes one objective fact to objectify the whole world in parallax to it.
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Post by Deleted on Dec 2, 2017 8:42:23 GMT
Much of our moral code is subject to arbitrary social mores and trends. However, I'm not sold on the idea that there's no objective basis to morality. Harm is an objectively negative experience - that is an absolute and unchanging truth - even if what constitutes harm to any individual sentient organism may be in some part subjective. Therefore, I believe that it's objectively wrong to create negative conscious experience in sentient beings in the form of the creation of new life which will be vulnerable to sensations of harm.
So my answer is mostly subjective, but there is an objective ultimate truth.
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Post by Toasted Cheese on Dec 2, 2017 9:23:18 GMT
Everything born of the mind, and that is everything, is subjective. What we perceive as objective, is only a projection of what the mind tells us, therefore it becomes subjective again. Internal and External is all one and the same. If being moral is objective, all that means, is that the person who believes this, wants others to believe and think the same way as them, or they are wrong. This is typical of brainwashed, religious nutjobs who only see things as a concept of separateness. Foolsl!
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Post by Toasted Cheese on Dec 2, 2017 9:25:25 GMT
If I am interpreting this convoluted and packed statement correctly, you are essentially saying that morality is objective. So then I have to ask, what is the basis for that position? How did you arrive at this conclusion, especially given the fact that it has changed from generation to generation, and seems to vary from society to society, to say nothing about individual perspectives? Because growing and learning from past mistakes is part of the human experience? We absolutely can say that past acceptance of things such as slavery are morally wrong, no matter how right previous generations thought they were. And things this generation supports, such as the exploitation and abuse of animals, will also rightfully be judged as evil by future generations. The fact that societies disagree over what is moral and right doesn't mean that there aren't real standards of what is moral or right. Who's realness, yours or mine?
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Post by Primemovermithrax Pejorative on Dec 2, 2017 9:31:49 GMT
Subjective but you can have an objective frame for it.
I.e. people can have different names for the Sun, but they mean the same thing. One can have a code that people should respect others if they want respect themselves. etc.
I had an argument with a secular humanist once-a follower of Objectivism, who tried to argue that humans were objectively superior to other animals and deserving of special moral consideration. The problem for him was that if you do not believe the universe has a mind, then there is not way to even begin to make a claim that humans are judged superior to anything since there is no absolute objective judge. Only personal biased opinion.
It would be like saying a chair has no mind--but apples are better than oranges because the chair declares it so. Substitute universe for chair. How can the universe-which is believed to have no mind behind it, how can it make value judgements? You cant say that humans can make that judgement since it would be biased-and invite anyone to make their own decisions on moral worth--by race, gender, religion--which happens all the time.
A theist has his own problem with making claims of specific revelations and value judgements-you cna question the objectivity and absolute truth of it--but at least they understand that there has to be some kind of absolute judge with a mind.
Secularists who believe in supremacy myths often carry theistic baggage without being aware of it. Its like people who think biological evolution follows a hierarchy-that is a subjective assumption. One could argue that an insect is the most advanced organism on the planet--essential for soil and plant pollination.
It all depends on what standards and criteria of value you use.
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Post by Toasted Cheese on Dec 2, 2017 9:32:26 GMT
Because growing and learning from past mistakes is part of the human experience? We absolutely can say that past acceptance of things such as slavery are morally wrong, no matter how right previous generations thought they were. And things this generation supports, such as the exploitation and abuse of animals, will also rightfully be judged as evil by future generations. The fact that societies disagree over what is moral and right doesn't mean that there aren't real standards of what is moral or right. Your view is pretty much the assumption that although “morality never changes”, human understanding of it does, and therefore society as a whole evolves be less tolerant of behaviors that were previously understood to be moral. Here are the problems with the logic you are using: A) If morality never changes, then why would society ever collectively agree to accept immoral behavior in the first place? Why would a society collectively believe and treat immoral behavior as though it was moral? That doesn’t make any sense. B) How do you account for the fact that certain things that were deemed “immoral” in the past, are now collectively viewed as moral? Treating women equal to men, challenging the authority of government officials, questioning religious leaders, belief that earth is not the center of the universe, masturbation, consuming/selling alcohol, dancing, using swear words, being homosexual, women wearing their hair short, wearing a bikini, marrying outside of one’s race, having a child out of wedlock, not spanking your children, etc. Depending on your culture all of those things were at one time considered by society to be immoral, but are largely accepted now. In some cases, those actions may even be considered more moral, and having the opposing view becomes immoral. So if morality never changes, and society is always collectively moving towards a more moral understanding, then why are things that were once considered immoral in the past now moral? And why is the view of morality still dependent on culture? I wouldn't expect a coherent answer from innsmouth, that is if he does choose to respond after being called out by your simply obvious and well put point here. The only thing he appears to put in his mouth, is his foot.
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Post by Toasted Cheese on Dec 2, 2017 9:51:23 GMT
Much of our moral code is subject to arbitrary social mores and trends. However, I'm not sold on the idea that there's no objective basis to morality. Harm is an objectively negative experience - that is an absolute and unchanging truth - even if what constitutes harm to any individual sentient organism may be in some part subjective. Therefore, I believe that it's objectively wrong to create negative conscious experience in sentient beings in the form of the creation of new life which will be vulnerable to sensations of harm. So my answer is mostly subjective, but there is an objective ultimate truth. It would depend on who is experiencing the harm though. It is abstract to the rest. All experience, be it negative or positive, is perceived as being real or objective, but it is still experience that is ultimately born out of subjectivity. Any notions about the moral aspect of actions and implications that may arise due to the experience are secondary. What matters most, is how it is primarily and wholly experienced in the present. We also don't know if whatever happens to us, or how it rounds out, is just a consequence of subjective actions gone before. We can only experience in the present moment, and once that is past, it then only becomes a subjective recollection. The moment of objective experience is fleeting, therefore does it really exist?
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Post by The Lost One on Dec 2, 2017 9:53:20 GMT
I think your post here boils down to you being puzzled why our instincts/intuitions/feelings about morality don't seem to align with the supposed-fact of morality being subjective. No, I'm not puzzled. I'm not saying I find subjective morality unlikely because of everything I'm saying, only that we don't seem to act as if it's true, nor can we really do so and still say morals are meaningful. When Sartre says Hitler has behaved morally by his own moral compass well that's all well and good but you could just say "Hitler behaved as he did" and it's no less meaningful. So why bother with morality as a concept at all? But what about when we believe our society is immoral? That would seem to be an appeal to something beyond society and it's rules.
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Post by Deleted on Dec 2, 2017 10:17:49 GMT
Much of our moral code is subject to arbitrary social mores and trends. However, I'm not sold on the idea that there's no objective basis to morality. Harm is an objectively negative experience - that is an absolute and unchanging truth - even if what constitutes harm to any individual sentient organism may be in some part subjective. Therefore, I believe that it's objectively wrong to create negative conscious experience in sentient beings in the form of the creation of new life which will be vulnerable to sensations of harm. So my answer is mostly subjective, but there is an objective ultimate truth. It would depend on who is experiencing the harm though. It is abstract to the rest. All experience, be it negative or positive, is perceived as being real or objective, but it is still experience that is ultimately born out of subjectivity. Any notions about the moral aspect of actions and implications that may arise due to the experience are secondary. What matters most, is how it is primarily and wholly experienced in the present. We also don't know if whatever happens to us, or how it rounds out, is just a consequence of subjective actions gone before. We can only experience in the present moment, and once that is past, it then only becomes a subjective recollection. The moment of objective experience is fleeting, therefore does it really exist? Whoever is experiencing the harm, it's a negative value state which is occurring in the universe. Someone else's experience of a negative value state is equivalent to your experience of that negative value state. The state of "harm" is always a negative state, regardless of who is experiencing that state, or what events in the universe have induced that state. Most real life situations are too complicated and messy to say that a certain action is always objectively morally wrong (hence why I state that morality is subjective in most cases); but when you have a situation such as bringing a new life into the world, which will then become vulnerable to harm (i.e. the conscious experience of negative value states), then I would call that action objectively morally wrong because the inducement of negative value states onto a conscious being is universally 'bad'.
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Post by Eva Yojimbo on Dec 2, 2017 10:25:03 GMT
I think your post here boils down to you being puzzled why our instincts/intuitions/feelings about morality don't seem to align with the supposed-fact of morality being subjective. No, I'm not puzzled. I'm not saying I find subjective morality unlikely because of everything I'm saying, only that we don't seem to act as if it's true, nor can we really do so and still say morals are meaningful. When Sartre says Hitler has behaved morally by his own moral compass well that's all well and good but you could just say "Hitler behaved as he did" and it's no less meaningful. So why bother with morality as a concept at all? For those who believe morality is subjective, I really don't see how they "should" act differently than they do. For subjectivists, every proclamation of (im)morality just comes with an implicit relativity to whatever moral standards they adhere to. One doesn't always clarify the standards because there's usually a lot of fundamental agreements within societies. We bother with morality because it profoundly affects society and us as individuals. Saying "Hitler has behaved morally by his own moral compass" is true, but it's just as true he behaved immorally by ours, and the two different moral standards could not co-exist (at least not given how history played out). But what about when we believe our society is immoral? That would seem to be an appeal to something beyond society and it's rules. To build from the above, society could only be immoral relative to our own standards, and in that case we'd have a handful of options: go along with society anyway, try to change society peacefully/legally, try to change it forcefully/illegally, or join another society. Which we chose would depend on a myriad of factors. To put it as generally as possible, every action can only be deemed (im)moral relative to some standard, and it shouldn't be surprising that there are opposing standards out there, just as there are different poker games/rules. This relativity doesn't make morality any less important because it still determines how society functions and how that society affects us personally.
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Post by Toasted Cheese on Dec 2, 2017 11:14:51 GMT
It would depend on who is experiencing the harm though. It is abstract to the rest. All experience, be it negative or positive, is perceived as being real or objective, but it is still experience that is ultimately born out of subjectivity. Any notions about the moral aspect of actions and implications that may arise due to the experience are secondary. What matters most, is how it is primarily and wholly experienced in the present. We also don't know if whatever happens to us, or how it rounds out, is just a consequence of subjective actions gone before. We can only experience in the present moment, and once that is past, it then only becomes a subjective recollection. The moment of objective experience is fleeting, therefore does it really exist? Whoever is experiencing the harm, it's a negative value state which is occurring in the universe. Someone else's experience of a negative value state is equivalent to your experience of that negative value state. The state of "harm" is always a negative state, regardless of who is experiencing that state, or what events in the universe have induced that state. Most real life situations are too complicated and messy to say that a certain action is always objectively morally wrong (hence why I state that morality is subjective in most cases); but when you have a situation such as bringing a new life into the world, which will then become vulnerable to harm (i.e. the conscious experience of negative value states), then I would call that action objectively morally wrong because the inducement of negative value states onto a conscious being is universally 'bad'. Negative to whom? Negative and Positive states are all subjective as well, same as good or bad, right or wrong, light or dark. What you are referring to is perceived as suffering, but that is subjective too. You may not agree with what others are doing, or can see where the suffering stems from, but it doesn't mean it is morally wrong. It is your journey at hand that needs to be nurtured and tended too. Your life is your own garden\playground. You can only lead by example. Others may buy into it, others may not and it is all born out of subjectivity.
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Post by Deleted on Dec 2, 2017 11:25:20 GMT
Whoever is experiencing the harm, it's a negative value state which is occurring in the universe. Someone else's experience of a negative value state is equivalent to your experience of that negative value state. The state of "harm" is always a negative state, regardless of who is experiencing that state, or what events in the universe have induced that state. Most real life situations are too complicated and messy to say that a certain action is always objectively morally wrong (hence why I state that morality is subjective in most cases); but when you have a situation such as bringing a new life into the world, which will then become vulnerable to harm (i.e. the conscious experience of negative value states), then I would call that action objectively morally wrong because the inducement of negative value states onto a conscious being is universally 'bad'. Negative to whom? Negative and Positive states are all subjective as well, same as good or bad, right or wrong, light or dark. What you are referring to is perceived as suffering, but that is subjective too. You may not agree with what others are doing, or can see where the suffering stems from, but it doesn't mean it is morally wrong. It is your journey at hand that needs to be nurtured and tended too. Your life is your own garden\playground. You can only lead by example. Others may buy into it, others may not and it is all born out of subjectivity. The perception of a certain sensation is subjective, but what is not subjective is that negative value states do, as a matter of verifiable fact, exist as events occurring in the universe. Evolution and life itself depend on these negative value states in order to motivate sentient beings to survive in order to pass on their genetic material. Therefore I would class it as objectively immoral to induce negative states out of a vacuum- as is the case in bringing a new sentient life form into being. And I agree that in most real life scenarios, it would be hard to delineate an objectively immoral act, due to the complicated interplay of variables that are involved. But I have mentioned one act that I would determine as being objectively immoral due to the fact that it is creating negative states out of a void, and not out of any real necessity.
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Post by The Lost One on Dec 2, 2017 11:36:01 GMT
To put it as generally as possible, every action can only be deemed (im)moral relative to some standard, and it shouldn't be surprising that there are opposing standards out there, just as there are different poker games/rules. But imagine a game of poker where everyone is playing by different rules and no one set of rules is any more valid than another. That would be chaos, right?
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Post by Toasted Cheese on Dec 2, 2017 11:42:51 GMT
Negative to whom? Negative and Positive states are all subjective as well, same as good or bad, right or wrong, light or dark. What you are referring to is perceived as suffering, but that is subjective too. You may not agree with what others are doing, or can see where the suffering stems from, but it doesn't mean it is morally wrong. It is your journey at hand that needs to be nurtured and tended too. Your life is your own garden\playground. You can only lead by example. Others may buy into it, others may not and it is all born out of subjectivity. The perception of a certain sensation is subjective, but what is not subjective is that negative value states do, as a matter of verifiable fact, exist as events occurring in the universe. Evolution and life itself depend on these negative value states in order to motivate sentient beings to survive in order to pass on their genetic material. Therefore I would class it as objectively immoral to induce negative states out of a vacuum- as is the case in bringing a new sentient life form into being.
And I agree that in most real life scenarios, it would be hard to delineate an objectively immoral act, due to the complicated interplay of variables that are involved. But I have mentioned one act that I would determine as being objectively immoral due to the fact that it is creating negative states out of a void, and not out of any real necessity.I get where you are coming from, but for those that are ignorant and in the void, so to speak, it is a necessity for them as they see it as objectivity. The hard line, is that it is still all subjective. None of it is real. Ignorance permeates the suffering and feeds the ego. It comes down to the image of self, but this is all illusion too.
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