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Post by Toasted Cheese on Dec 2, 2017 11:45:19 GMT
To put it as generally as possible, every action can only be deemed (im)moral relative to some standard, and it shouldn't be surprising that there are opposing standards out there, just as there are different poker games/rules. But imagine a game of poker where everyone is playing by different rules and no one set of rules is any more valid than another. That would be chaos, right?
Errrrr! You mean cheating then perhaps. 
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Post by Eva Yojimbo on Dec 2, 2017 11:49:47 GMT
To put it as generally as possible, every action can only be deemed (im)moral relative to some standard, and it shouldn't be surprising that there are opposing standards out there, just as there are different poker games/rules. But imagine a game of poker where everyone is playing by different rules and no one set of rules is any more valid than another. That would be chaos, right?Exactly. That's a big reason why we have rules/morals/laws: to prevent chaos. Still, it doesn't make sense to speak of any given set of rules as being more "valid" than another, they just make for different games, and people will naturally prefer different games for different reasons. (Substitute "games" for "societies" in this metaphor)
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Post by Terrapin Station on Dec 2, 2017 12:02:19 GMT
Morality is subjective that is indisputable, the way to prove this is ask for a simple objective moral rule. All that shows is that if there are objective morals, there is disagreement about what they are. I'm not sure you could show objective morals don't exist. Better arguments against them are those that try to show they are unlikely or incoherent or we wouldn't be able to tell what they were if they did exist, or that even if we knew they existed and what they were, why would that obligate us to follow them? More interesting to me is whether moral questions even really make sense unless we assume there are objective morals. Most of us don't act or feel we should act like a child killer just has a different outlook to us even if deep down we may think this so. Most of us when in a moral dilemma try to consider what the right thing to do is, but if there are no objective morals, what are we appealing to exactly? Surely whatever our action, it will be no more or less moral than any other. One way round this might be to say morality is that which is deemed likely to bring consequences we want. For instance if I steal from Julie, Julie won't trust me in future so it is better if I don't do so and it is better for me if others behave similarly. But while this maybe explains the origin of morals, it doesn't really fit with how most people seem to think of morals - when we do a good deed, we don't feel we do it out of some enlightened selfishness. I feel Sartre is one of the few philosophers who actually committed fully to subjective morals. If we are the only arbiter of our own morality then all our actions are deemed moral by us having done them. But most of us I think baulk at such an attitude. Suppose I've wittered on enough so short version of the above: both objective and subjective moral theories seem highly problematic to me. One mistake that is frequently made when reasoning about this issue--and it's understandably people with objectivist inclinations who usually make this mistake--is to still treat "the objective" as holding the trump card. What I mean by that is this: a common objectivist view is that whatever is objectively the case is what we must defer to; the whole gist of the "project" in their eyes is to get objective stuff right and to go along with it. So, they think, if it's true that morality is subjective-only, then what's objectively the case is that all moral stances are on equal footing, thus one has no grounds for preferring or enforcing one moral stance over another. The mistake being made is this: if morality is subjective-only, then deferring to objectivity in moral matters is a category error. It doesn't matter what's objectively the case when it comes weighing moral stances, because moral stances are not in the objective realm. What matters is what's in the subjective realm. It's just like when it comes to determining what marine life is in a cubic unit of ocean (at time T x), it doesn't matter what the properties of some cubic unit of earth are in the middle of the Sahara Desert (at time T x). Or in other words, we need to look in the right location for the phenomena at hand. So we make moral decisions by examining the subjective realm. We "dig down deep" to discover how we really feel, what our preferences really are. We challenge how we feel with difficult cases via thought experiments--that's one way to test whether we really feel the way we assumed we did, to figure out whether our moral feelings, if put into a action, are likely to have the upshots that we desire. And when we apply our moral views to real life situations, we regularly reassess how we feel.
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Post by Deleted on Dec 2, 2017 12:07:51 GMT
The perception of a certain sensation is subjective, but what is not subjective is that negative value states do, as a matter of verifiable fact, exist as events occurring in the universe. Evolution and life itself depend on these negative value states in order to motivate sentient beings to survive in order to pass on their genetic material. Therefore I would class it as objectively immoral to induce negative states out of a vacuum- as is the case in bringing a new sentient life form into being.
And I agree that in most real life scenarios, it would be hard to delineate an objectively immoral act, due to the complicated interplay of variables that are involved. But I have mentioned one act that I would determine as being objectively immoral due to the fact that it is creating negative states out of a void, and not out of any real necessity.I get where you are coming from, but for those that are ignorant and in the void, so to speak, it is a necessity for them as they see it as objectivity. The hard line, is that it is still all subjective. None of it is real. Ignorance permeates the suffering and feeds the ego. It comes down to the image of self, but this is all illusion too. How are subjectively experienced sensations "not real"? Even something that occurs only inside the mind of one observer is still the product of an event which is occurring in the universe. We can use the term "harm" to refer to experiences which always have a negative quality. Any given event may be experienced in subjectively different ways; but the concept of "harm" always refers to an experience that has a quality of negative value.
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Post by Toasted Cheese on Dec 2, 2017 12:09:13 GMT
I get where you are coming from, but for those that are ignorant and in the void, so to speak, it is a necessity for them as they see it as objectivity. The hard line, is that it is still all subjective. None of it is real. Ignorance permeates the suffering and feeds the ego. It comes down to the image of self, but this is all illusion too. How are subjectively experienced sensations "not real"? Even something that occurs only inside the mind of one observer is still the product of an event which is occurring in the universe. We can use the term "harm" to refer to experiences which always have a negative quality. Any given event may be experienced in subjectively different ways; but the concept of "harm" always refers to an experience that has a quality of negative value. Real for whom?
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Post by Deleted on Dec 2, 2017 12:15:56 GMT
How are subjectively experienced sensations "not real"? Even something that occurs only inside the mind of one observer is still the product of an event which is occurring in the universe. We can use the term "harm" to refer to experiences which always have a negative quality. Any given event may be experienced in subjectively different ways; but the concept of "harm" always refers to an experience that has a quality of negative value. Real for whom? Real for anyone. Even something that is experienced only in the mind of one observer is something that is produced by a real event that has occurred in the universe; that observer being part of the universe. An event or sensation does not need to have observable external manifestations in order to be "real".
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Post by Toasted Cheese on Dec 2, 2017 12:18:00 GMT
Real for anyone. Even something that is experienced only in the mind of one observer is something that is produced by a real event that has occurred in the universe; that observer being part of the universe. An event or sensation does not need to have observable external manifestations in order to be "real". mic, none of it is real, it is all illusion. That is the dream you have to become awake too.
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Post by Terrapin Station on Dec 2, 2017 12:20:14 GMT
To put it as generally as possible, every action can only be deemed (im)moral relative to some standard, and it shouldn't be surprising that there are opposing standards out there, just as there are different poker games/rules. But imagine a game of poker where everyone is playing by different rules and no one set of rules is any more valid than another. That would be chaos, right? First, it's important to realize that x being subjective does not imply that every person differs when it comes to x. X being subjective just refers to the fact that x is a mental phenomenon only. Hypothetically, at least as a logical possibility, everyone could have an identical mind (well, ignoring nominalist objections to taking that literally). If so, it would be the case that (a) x is subjective, and (b) everyone agrees on everything when it comes to x. There is no dissent at all. Second, the rules of poker obviously are subjective. There is no objectively preferred set of rules. The objective world has no preferences after all. It's persons, with minds, who have preferences. It's persons, with minds, who invented the rules of poker, persons, with minds, who communicated the rules to each other, who agreed to use those rules, and so on. There's nothing objective about any of that. The only objective component would be something like text--that is, some sort or marks on paper, that in persons' minds, correspond with the rules of poker, but that correspondence, the meaning people ascribe to those marks on paper, etc. are mental phenomena. So it's important to understand what subjectivists are saying, what subjectivism does and doesn't imply, etc., and to not have straw man versions in mind where we assume that the subjectivity of x implies that we're all wildly different when it comes to x, that we don't communicate about x, and that we don't interact with and influence each other when it comes to x.
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Post by Deleted on Dec 2, 2017 12:21:40 GMT
Real for anyone. Even something that is experienced only in the mind of one observer is something that is produced by a real event that has occurred in the universe; that observer being part of the universe. An event or sensation does not need to have observable external manifestations in order to be "real". mic, none of it is real, it is all illusion. That is the dream you have to become awake too. If it's an illusion that's occurring inside my brain, then it's an event that has occurred in the universe. If the character of that experience (whether illusory or otherwise) has a negative quality, then that is a event which has importance, given that the conscious experience of sentient beings is the only source of value in the universe.
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Post by Terrapin Station on Dec 2, 2017 12:24:58 GMT
Negative to whom? Negative and Positive states are all subjective as well, same as good or bad, right or wrong, light or dark. What you are referring to is perceived as suffering, but that is subjective too. You may not agree with what others are doing, or can see where the suffering stems from, but it doesn't mean it is morally wrong. It is your journey at hand that needs to be nurtured and tended too. Your life is your own garden\playground. You can only lead by example. Others may buy into it, others may not and it is all born out of subjectivity. The perception of a certain sensation is subjective, but what is not subjective is that negative value states do, as a matter of verifiable fact, exist as events occurring in the universe. Evolution and life itself depend on these negative value states in order to motivate sentient beings to survive in order to pass on their genetic material. Therefore I would class it as objectively immoral to induce negative states out of a vacuum- as is the case in bringing a new sentient life form into being. And I agree that in most real life scenarios, it would be hard to delineate an objectively immoral act, due to the complicated interplay of variables that are involved. But I have mentioned one act that I would determine as being objectively immoral due to the fact that it is creating negative states out of a void, and not out of any real necessity. What would you say is an example of an objective negative value state? And where would we look to see that the universe puts a negative value on creating a negative value state?
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Post by Deleted on Dec 2, 2017 12:27:54 GMT
The perception of a certain sensation is subjective, but what is not subjective is that negative value states do, as a matter of verifiable fact, exist as events occurring in the universe. Evolution and life itself depend on these negative value states in order to motivate sentient beings to survive in order to pass on their genetic material. Therefore I would class it as objectively immoral to induce negative states out of a vacuum- as is the case in bringing a new sentient life form into being. And I agree that in most real life scenarios, it would be hard to delineate an objectively immoral act, due to the complicated interplay of variables that are involved. But I have mentioned one act that I would determine as being objectively immoral due to the fact that it is creating negative states out of a void, and not out of any real necessity. What would you say is an example of an objective negative value state? And where would we look to see that the universe puts a negative value on creating a negative value state? An example of a negative value state would be stepping on a big nail and having it driven through your foot, causing physical pain. And we would infer that this event has negative value due to the fact that this event induces an unpleasant sensation in the mind/body of the observer. Given that the conscious experience of sentient beings is the only known source of value in the universe, it can be concluded that this event has an objectively negative value.
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Post by Terrapin Station on Dec 2, 2017 12:38:44 GMT
What would you say is an example of an objective negative value state? And where would we look to see that the universe puts a negative value on creating a negative value state? An example of a negative value state would be stepping on a big nail and having it driven through your foot, causing physical pain. And we would infer that this event has negative value due to the fact that this event induces an unpleasant sensation in the mind/body of the observer. Given that the conscious experience of sentient beings is the only known source of value in the universe, it can be concluded that this event has an objectively negative value. If the conscious experience of sentient beings is the only known source for value in the universe, then how are you saying that value occurs outside of the conscious experience of sentient beings?
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Post by Deleted on Dec 2, 2017 12:42:27 GMT
An example of a negative value state would be stepping on a big nail and having it driven through your foot, causing physical pain. And we would infer that this event has negative value due to the fact that this event induces an unpleasant sensation in the mind/body of the observer. Given that the conscious experience of sentient beings is the only known source of value in the universe, it can be concluded that this event has an objectively negative value. If the conscious experience of sentient beings is the only known source for value in the universe, then how are you saying that value occurs outside of the conscious experience of sentient beings? The observer is part of the universe, and therefore the experience is happening in the universe. It doesn't need any manifestations external to the conscious experience of the observer in order to be an objectively negative event; because the observer's consciousness is itself part of the universe and the only part of the universe from which value can be derived.
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Post by Terrapin Station on Dec 2, 2017 12:50:09 GMT
If the conscious experience of sentient beings is the only known source for value in the universe, then how are you saying that value occurs outside of the conscious experience of sentient beings? The observer is part of the universe, and therefore the experience is happening in the universe. It doesn't need any manifestations external to the conscious experience of the observer in order to be an objectively negative event; because the observer's consciousness is itself part of the universe and the only part of the universe from which value can be derived. Whether something is part of the universe isn't at all in dispute. No one is claiming that anything isn't part of the universe. The subjective/objective distinction is a distinction about whether something is occurring in minds or outside of minds. Per that distinction, something that only occurs mentally, in consciousness, etc., is subjective (so literally by definition). You could disagree with that definition. You could disagree with using those terms in that conventional way. That's fine. We could use different terms. What matters, though, are the upshots of whether something only occurs in minds or not. One of the upshots of that is that any way that someone feels can not be wrong--they can't be getting wrong what the world is really like, because there's nothing more to the phenomenon in question than a way that person feels about something.
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Post by Deleted on Dec 2, 2017 13:09:09 GMT
The observer is part of the universe, and therefore the experience is happening in the universe. It doesn't need any manifestations external to the conscious experience of the observer in order to be an objectively negative event; because the observer's consciousness is itself part of the universe and the only part of the universe from which value can be derived. Whether something is part of the universe isn't at all in dispute. No one is claiming that anything isn't part of the universe. The subjective/objective distinction is a distinction about whether something is occurring in minds or outside of minds. Per that distinction, something that only occurs mentally, in consciousness, etc., is subjective (so literally by definition). You could disagree with that definition. You could disagree with using those terms in that conventional way. That's fine. We could use different terms. What matters, though, are the upshots of whether something only occurs in minds or not. One of the upshots of that is that any way that someone feels can not be wrong--they can't be getting wrong what the world is really like, because there's nothing more to the phenomenon in question than a way that person feels about something. I was really using the term "objective" in the sense of not being subject to distortion from bias or prejudice; which is also a valid definition of "objective" (as in 'the BBC journalist gave an objective overview of the relevant issues'). As per Merriam Webster: Whilst what constitutes harm may vary from one individual to the next, it is a universal truth that "harm" always has a negative value, because the definition of "harm" can only ever relate to a referent possessed of qualities deemed to be detrimental or negative.
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Post by Terrapin Station on Dec 2, 2017 13:46:50 GMT
Whether something is part of the universe isn't at all in dispute. No one is claiming that anything isn't part of the universe. The subjective/objective distinction is a distinction about whether something is occurring in minds or outside of minds. Per that distinction, something that only occurs mentally, in consciousness, etc., is subjective (so literally by definition). You could disagree with that definition. You could disagree with using those terms in that conventional way. That's fine. We could use different terms. What matters, though, are the upshots of whether something only occurs in minds or not. One of the upshots of that is that any way that someone feels can not be wrong--they can't be getting wrong what the world is really like, because there's nothing more to the phenomenon in question than a way that person feels about something. I was really using the term "objective" in the sense of not being subject to distortion from bias or prejudice; which is also a valid definition of "objective" (as in 'the BBC journalist gave an objective overview of the relevant issues'). As per Merriam Webster: Whilst what constitutes harm may vary from one individual to the next, it is a universal truth that "harm" always has a negative value, because the definition of "harm" can only ever relate to a referent possessed of qualities deemed to be detrimental or negative. You're ignoring the "what matters are the upshots" part.
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Post by Deleted on Dec 2, 2017 14:05:37 GMT
I was really using the term "objective" in the sense of not being subject to distortion from bias or prejudice; which is also a valid definition of "objective" (as in 'the BBC journalist gave an objective overview of the relevant issues'). As per Merriam Webster: Whilst what constitutes harm may vary from one individual to the next, it is a universal truth that "harm" always has a negative value, because the definition of "harm" can only ever relate to a referent possessed of qualities deemed to be detrimental or negative. You're ignoring the "what matters are the upshots" part. Well I agree with that, to the extent that if somebody feels something, they are experiencing an aspect of reality.
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Post by Terrapin Station on Dec 2, 2017 14:08:49 GMT
You're ignoring the "what matters are the upshots" part. Well I agree with that, to the extent that if somebody feels something, they are experiencing an aspect of reality. The most important upshot is that they can't be incorrect. If they think, "I feel it's best to have as many kids as possible and make them suffer as much as possible," they can't be incorrect about that. Of course, they can't be correct, either. Correct and incorrect, true and false, etc. are not applicable, due to the fact that we're talking about something that only obtains as a feeling/sentiment/preference/etc. in one's mind.
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Post by Deleted on Dec 2, 2017 14:50:40 GMT
Well I agree with that, to the extent that if somebody feels something, they are experiencing an aspect of reality. The most important upshot is that they can't be incorrect. If they think, "I feel it's best to have as many kids as possible and make them suffer as much as possible," they can't be incorrect about that. Of course, they can't be correct, either. Correct and incorrect, true and false, etc. are not applicable, due to the fact that we're talking about something that only obtains as a feeling/sentiment/preference/etc. in one's mind. I don't agree with the notion that the question of whether or not to have children is one that should be approached with neutrality. The fact is that when they have the children, those children will be vulnerable to harm, and their conscious experience and wellbeing is equally as important and valid as anyone else's. When the would-be parents have a yearning to have children, they are experiencing an aspect of reality - namely their own biological instincts. However, it cannot be ignored that by giving in to their base instincts, they will be imposing risk on vulnerable sentient beings, who did not have the ability to consent to that proposition. Given that it is an immutable and universal truth that "harm" is a negative value, and that conscious minds are the only source of value in the universe; they are incorrect if it is their belief that the act of having children will be beneficial to anyone other than themselves, or that they are solving any problem other than their own by doing so. And even with respect to their own problem, that could be solved by committing suicide, in which case they will not have created any new conscious beings to shoulder the burden of the parents.
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Post by tickingmask on Dec 2, 2017 14:52:35 GMT
Why would you exclude those two? My bad, I meant to add homopathy and vaccination to the list.
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